UPSC Prelims 2018 Question and Answers
1.Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the “Rule of Law”?
1) Limitation of powers
2) Equality before law
3) People’s responsibility to the Government
4) Liberty and civil rights
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer C
Solution Rule of Law includes:
● Absence of arbitrary power
● Equality before law
● Primacy of individual rights
In rule of law, it should be that government is responsible to the people and not the vice versa.
2.With reference to cultural history of India, consider the following statements:
1) Most of the Tyagaraja Kritis are devotional songs in praise of Lord Krishna.
2) Tyagaraja created several new ragas.
3) Annamacharya and Tyagaraja are contemporaries.
4) Annamacharya kirtanas are devotional songs in praise of Lord Venkateshwara.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 2, 3 and 4
Answer B
Solution ● Annamacharya was a 15th-century Hindu saint and is the earliest known Indian musician to compose songs called sankirtanas in praise of the god Venkateswara, a form of Vishnu, whereas Tyagaraja was 18th century carnatic musician.
● Tyagaraja was an ardent devotee of lord Rama. In his praise and honour, he wrote numerous musical operas and about twenty four thousand songs (a claim that has been speculated among music historians).
3.What is “Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)”, sometimes seen in the news?
A. An Israeli radar system
B. India’s indigenous anti-missile programme
C. An American anti-missile system
D. A defence collaboration between Japan and South Korea
Answer C
Solution Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD), formerly Theater High Altitude Area Defense, is an American anti-ballistic missile defense system designed to shoot down short-, medium-, and intermediate-range ballistic missiles in their terminal phase (descent or re-entry) by intercepting with a hit-to-kill approach.
4.The well-known painting “Bani Thani” belongs to the
A. Bundi school
B. Jaipur school
C. Kangra school
D. Kishangarh school
Answer D
Solution ● Bani Thani is an Indian miniature painting painted by Nihâl Chand from the Marwar school of Kishangarh. It portrays a woman who is elegant and graceful.
● She has been compared to the Mona Lisa. Inspired by Radha, Bani Thani is characterised by idealised distinct features, such as arched eyebrows, lotus-like elongated eyes and pointed chin.
5.Consider the following statements:
1) No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State any court during his term of office.
2) The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer C
Solution ● Article 361: Protection of President and Governors: No criminal proceedings whatsoever shall be instituted or continued against the President, or the Governor of a State, in any court during his term of office.
● Article 158: Conditions of Governor Office:The emoluments and allowances of the Governor shall not be diminished during his term of office
6.Which one of the following reflects the nicest, appropriate relationship between law and liberty?
A. If there are inure laws, there is less liberty.
B. If there are no laws, there is no liberty.
C. If there is liberty, laws have to be made by the people.
D. If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger.
Answer B
Solution ● The term ‘liberty’ means absence of restraints on the activities of individuals, and at the same time, providing opportunities for the development of individuals.
● However, liberty does not mean ‘license’ to do what one likes, and has to be enjoyed within the limitations mentioned in the Constitution and various laws.
● The concept of liberty is not absolute. Absense of laws does not ensure liberty.
7.Consider the following statements:
1) The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the Assembly.
2) Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her immediately.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer A
Solution Usually, the speaker remains in office during the life of the assembly. However, he vacates his office earlier in any of the following cases:
● If he ceases to be a member of the assembly
● If he resigns by writing to the deputy speaker and
● If he is removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the assembly. Such a resolution can be moved only after giving 14 days advance notice.
the Speaker holds office from the date of his election till immediately before the first meeting of the Legislative assembly after the dissolution of the one to which he was elected. He is eligible for re-election. On the dissolution of the Legislative assembly, although the Speaker ceases to be a member of the House, he does not vacate his office.
8.In the federation established by The Government of India Act of 1935. Residuary Power were given to the-
A. Federal Legislature
B. Governor General
C. Provincial Legislature
D. Provincial Governors
Answer B
Solution Residuary powers were vested in the Governor -General, who could, in his discretion, assign any such power by a public notification to the federal legislature or the provincial legislature .
9.Consider the following pairs:
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4
Answer B
Solution ● Aleppo is in Syria.
● Kirkuk and Mosul are in Iraq.
● Majar – i – Sharif is in Afghanistan.
10.Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India?
1) Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did.
2) Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries.
3) Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our school, public places and major tourist
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer B
Solution The Digital India programme is centred on three key vision areas:
● Digital Infrastructure as a Core Utility to Every Citizen
● Governance and Services on Demand
● Digital Empowerment of Citizens
11.With reference to the ‘Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (CACSA)’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1) GACSA is an outcome of the Climate Summit held in Paris in 2015.
2) Membership of GACSA does not create any binding obligations.
3) India was instrumental in the creation of GACSA.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer B
Solution ● GACSA is an inclusive, voluntary and action-oriented multi-stakeholder platform on Climate-Smart Agriculture (CSA). Its vision is to improve food security, nutrition and resilience in the face of climate change.
● GACSA was launched in September 2014 in the margins of the UN Climate Summit.
● membership in the Alliance does not create any binding obligations and each member individually determines the nature of its participation.
● India is just a signatory member.
12.Consider the following countries:
1) Australia
2) Canada
3) China
4) India
5) Japan
6) USA
Which of the above are among the ‘free-trade partners’ of ASEAN?
A. 1, 2, 4 and 5
B. 3, 4, 5 and 6
C. 1, 3, 4 and 5
D. 2, 3, 4 and 6
Answer C
Solution ● The Association of Southeast Asian Nations, or ASEAN, was established on 8 August 1967 in Bangkok, Thailand, with the signing of the ASEAN Declaration (Bangkok Declaration) by the Founding Fathers of ASEAN, namely Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore and Thailand.
● ASEAN has existing free trade agreements with Australia, China, India, Japan, South Korea and New Zealand
13.In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the ‘Additional Protocol’ with the `International Atomic Energy
Agency (IAEA)’?
A. The civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards.
B. The military nuclear installations come under the inspection of IAEA.
C. The country will have the privilege to buy uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG).
D. The country automatically becomes a member of the NSG.
Answer A
Solution ● India has ratified the Additional Protocol, a commitment given under India-U.S. nuclear deal by the previous dispensation to grant greater ease to International Atomic Energy Agency to monitor India’s civilian atomic programme.
● The IAEA had in March 2009 approved an additional protocol to India’s safeguards agreement consequent to a pact reached with the agency the previous year to place its civilian nuclear facilities under IAEA safeguards.
14.With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements:
1) The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.
2) The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer A
Solution Value of the vote is determined in the following manner:
● Every elected member of the legislative assembly of a state shall have as many votes as there are multiples of one thousand in the quotient obtained by dividing the population of the state by the total number of the elected members of the assembly (Hence, it varies according to population of state.).
● Every elected member of either House of Parliament shall have such number of votes as may be obtained by dividing the total number of votes assigned to members of the legislative assemblies of the states by the total number of the elected members of both the Houses of Parliament.
15.Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct?
A. A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
B. A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India.
C. A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of money out of the Contingency Fund of India.
D. A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India.
Answer C
Solution Article 110. Definition of Money Bill
A Bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions dealing with all or any of the following matters, namely
A. the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax;
B. the regulation of the borrowing of money or the giving of any guarantee by the Government of India, or the amendment of the law with respect to any financial obligations undertaken or to be undertaken by the Government of India;
C. the custody of the Consolidated Fund or the Contingency Fund of India, the payment of money into or the withdrawal of money from any such Fund;
D. the appropriation of money out of the consolidated Fund of India.
16.With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements:
1) The National Programme for Organic Production’ (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development.
2) The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority’ (APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP.
3) Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer B
Solution ● Ministry of Commerce has implemented the National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP) since 2001.
● Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of the NPOP.
● Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic state, in 2016, by implementing organic practices on around 75,000 hectares of agricultural land.
17.Consider the following:
1) Birds
2) Dust blowing
3) Rain
4) Wind blowing
Which of the above spread plant diseases?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer D
Solution ● Nematodes, snails, birds, and wild and domestic animals often help dissemination of plant diseases.
● The spores of many parasitic fungi are disseminated by air currents from diseased to disease-free host Pathogens like, bacteria are often disseminated by splashing of raindrops, as in case of Citrus canker disease.
● Soil and field operation also disseminate the diseases as they result in dust blowing.
18.Consider the following statements:
1) The definition of “Critical Wildlife Habitat” is incorporated in the Forest Rights Act, 2006.
2) For the first time in India, Baigas have been given Habitat Rights.
3) Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change officially decides and declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer A
Solution ● The phrase ‘critical wildlife habitat’ is defined only in the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, and NOT in the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
● Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs officially decides and declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of India.
19.Consider the following items:
1) Cereal grains hulled
2) Chicken eggs cooked
3) Fish processed and canned
4) Newspapers containing advertising material
Which of the above items is/are exempted under GST (Goods and Services Tax)?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer C
Solution ● While cereals, eggs, fish, etc., are exempted from GST, the question mentions ‘cooked’ and ‘processed’ which in all likelihood will be available at restaurants and factories. These are, therefore, not exempted from the purview of GST.
20.With reference to the governance of public sector banking in India, consider the following statements:
1) Capital infusion into public sector banks by the Government of India has steadily increased in the last decade.
2) To put the public sector banks in order, the merger of associate banks with the parent State Bank of India has been affected.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer B
Solution ● Capital infusion into public sector banks by the Government of India has not steadily increased in the last decade.
- The merger of SBI associated banks under Section 35 of the State Bank of India Act, 1955 will result in the creation of a stronger merged entity. This will minimize vulnerability to any geographic concentration risks faced by subsidiary banks. It will create improved operational efficiency and economies of scale. It will also result in improved risk management and unified treasury operations.
21.With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements:
1) PSLVs launch the satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites.
2) Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth.
3) GSLV Mk III is a four-stage launch l vehicle with the first and third stages l using solid rocket motors; and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 2
D. 3 only
Answer A
Solution ● GSLV Mk 3 is a three-stage heavy lift launch vehicle developed by ISRO. The vehicle has two solid strap-one, a core liquid booster and a cryogenic upper stage.
● The GSLV is designed mainly to deliver the communication-satellites to the highly elliptical (typically 250 x 3.6000 Km) Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO).
● PSLV is designed mainly to deliver the “earth-observation” or “remote-sensing” satellites with lift-off mass of up to about 1750 Kg to Sun-Synchronous circular polar orbits of 600-900 Km altitude.
22.In which one of the following States is Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary located?
A. Arunachal Pradesh
B. Manipur
C. Meghalaya
D. Nagaland
Answer A
Solution At the foothills of the Eastern Himalayas in Arunachal Pradesh, Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary is also known as Pakke Wildlife Sanctuary and more popularly as Pakke Tiger Reserve. Earlier a game sanctuary, it became a wildlife sanctuary in 2001 and a part of Project Tiger in 2002.
23.Consider the following:
1) Areca nut
2) Barley
3) Coffee
4) Finger millet
5) Groundnut
6) Sesamum
7) Turmeric
The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affair, has announced the Minimum Support Prick for which of the above?
A. 1, 2, 3 and 7 only
B. 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
C. 1, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only
D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
Answer B
Solution ● The MSP is fixed on the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP). The CACP is a statutory body and submits separate reports recommending prices for Kharif and Rabi seasons.
● Initially, MSP covered paddy, rice, wheat, jowar, bajra, maize, ragi (Finger Millet), barley, gram, tur, moong, urad, sugarcane, groundnut, soybean, sunflower seed, rapeseed and mustard, cotton, jute and tobacco.
● From 1994-95 onwards, Nigerseed and Sesame were included under MSP Scheme of CACP, in addition to the edible oilseeds already covered by the Commission.
● Similarly, during 2001-2002, the government enhanced the terms of reference of the Commission by including lentil (masur).
24.Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty.
Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement?
A. Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution
B. Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV
C. Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part. III
D. Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution
Answer C
Solution Privacy is a constitutionally protected right which emerges primarily from the guarantee of life and personal liberty in Article 21 of the Constitution. Elements of privacy also arise in varying contexts from the other facets of freedom and dignity recognised and guaranteed by the fundamental rights contained in Part III.
25.Consider the following events:
1) The first democratically elected communist party government formed in a State in India.
2) India’s then largest bank, ‘Imperial Bank of India’, was renamed ‘State Bank of India’.
3) Air India was nationalised and became the national carrier.
4) Goa became a part of independent India.
Which of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?
A. 4 – 1 – 2 – 3
B. 3 – 2 – 1 – 4
C. 4 – 2 – 1 – 3
D. 3 – 1 -2 -4
Answer B
Solution ● First democratically elected communist party government formed in a state in India in 1957.
● Imperial bank was renamed as state bank of India in 1955.
● Air India was nationalised in 1953. Government of India passed the Air Corporations Act and purchased a majority stake in the carrier from Tata Sons.
● Goa became an independent India on 18 December 1961. Indian troops crossed the border into Goa and “liberated” it.
26.International Labour Organization’s Conventions 138 and 182 are related to-
A. Child labour
B. Adaptation of agricultural practices to global climate change
C. Regulation of food prices and food security
D. Gender parity at the workplace
Answer A
Solution India recently ratified the two Core Conventions of International Labour Organization (ILO) Conventions 138 regarding admission of age to employment and Convention 182 regarding worst forms of Child Labour.
27.Among the following cities, which one lies on a longitude closest to that of Delhi?
A. Bengaluru
B. Hyderabad
C. Nagpur
D. Pune
Answer A
Solution ● Delhi and Bengaluru are located almost on the same longitude.
● Longitude of Delhi- 77.1025 ° E
● Longitude of Bengaluru- 77.5946 ° E
● Longitude of Hyderabad- 78.4867 ° E
● Longitude of Nagpur- 79.0882 ° E
● Longitude of Pune- 73.8567 ° E
28.With reference to digital payments, consider the following statements:
1) BHIM app allows the user to transfer money to anyone with a UPI-enabled bank account.
2) While a chip-pin debit card has four factors of authentication, BHIM app has only two factors of authentication.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer A
Solution ● BHIM app is powered by UPI and integrates the Payments platform as the official app of the government of India.
● Debit card does not have four factor authorization and BHIM app has three factor authorization.
29.Consider the following statements:
1) In India, State Governments do not have the power to auction non-coal mines.
2) Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand do not have gold mines.
3) Rajasthan has iron ore mines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3
D. 3 only
Answer D
Solution ● As per Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2015 the non-coal mines have to be auctioned by the respective state governments.
● Jharkhand has both alluvial and native gold. Alluvial gold is obtained from the sands of the Subarnarekha river, Sona Nadi in Singhbhum district and the streams draining the Sonapat valley. Native gold is found near Lowa in Singhbhum district.In Andhra Pradesh gold deposits are found in Ramagiri in Anantapur district.
● In Rajasthan the Iron-Ore deposits are located in the districts of Jaipur, Udaipur, Jhunjhunu, Sikar, Bhilwara, Alwar, Bharatpur, Dausa and Banswara
30.India enacted The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 in order to comply with the obligations to
A. ILO
B. IMF
C. UNCTAD
D. WTO
Answer D
Solution ● Geographical Indication is “indications which identify a good as originating in the territory of a Member, or a region or locality in that territory, where a given quality, reputation or other characteristic of the good is essentially attributable to its geographical origin”.
● Consequently, upon India joining as a member state of the TRIPS Agreement sui-geneis legislation for the protection of geographical indication was enacted in 1999. Geographical Indications are covered as an element of Intellectual Property Rights under the TRIPS Agreement (WTO Agreement).
31.With reference to the provisions made under the National Food Security Act, 2013 consider the following statements:
1) The families coming under the category of ‘below poverty line (BPL)’ only are eligible to receive subsidised grains.
2) The eldest woman in a household, of age 18 years or above, shall be the head of the household for the purpose of issuance of a ration card.
3) Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a take-home ration’ of 1600 calories per day during pregnancy and for six months thereafter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3
D. 3 only
Answer B
Solution ● Coverage and entitlement under Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS): Upto 75% of the rural population and 50% of the urban population will be covered under TPDS, with uniform entitlement of 5 kg per person per month. Not restricted to only BPL families.
● Eldest woman of the household of age 18 years or above to be the head of the household for the purpose of issuing of ration cards.
● Pregnant women and lactating mothers and children in the age group of 6 months to 14 years will be entitled to meals as per prescribed nutritional norms under Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) and Mid-Day Meal (MDM) schemes. The nutritional and feeding norms for supplementary nutrition as prescribed by GOI is, 600 (not 1600) calories.
32.The term “two-state solution” is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of
A. China
B. Israel
C. Iraq
D. Yemen
Answer B
Solution Two- State Solution of Israel Palestine Issue: It envisages an independent State of Palestine alongside the State of Israel west of Jordan river. The UNSC Resolution 1397 agreed in 2000 with support from USA and becoming first UNSC resolution to agree on two state solution.
33.Consider the following statements:
1) The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954.
2) The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the charge of Director General of Health Services in the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer A
Solution ● The FSSAI Act took 8 older acts into one umbrella including Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954 Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Government of India is the Administrative Ministry for the implementation of FSSAI
● The Chairperson and Chief Executive Officer of Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is appointed by Government of India. The Chairperson is in the rank of Secretary to Government of India. It is not under the charge of Director General of Health services.
34.Consider the following pairs:
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2
C. 3 only
D. 2 and 3
Answer B
Solution ● Chapchar Kut is the biggest festival of the Mizos and is celebrated in March after completion of jhum operation
● Khongjom Parba is a style of ballad singing from Manipur using Dholak (drum) which depicts stories of heroic battle fought by Manipuris against the mighty British Empire.
● Thang-ta dance of Manipur was evolved from the martial arts drills promoted by the kings of Manipur.
35.Consider the following statements:
1) As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State Council of Teacher Education.
2) As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.
3) In India, more than 90% of teacher -5 education institutions are directly under the State Governments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3
D. 3 only
Answer B
Solution ● Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009, the National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE) has laid down the minimum qualifications for a person to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in class I to VIII.
● One of the essential qualifications for a person to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in any of the primary schools is that he/she should pass the Teacher Eligibility Test (TET) which will be conducted by the appropriate Government.
● From the mid-1960s to 1993, the number of TEIs in India went up from about 1,200 to about 1,500. After the NCTE was set up, the number of TEIs exploded, to about 16,000 (over 90% private) by 2011.
36.With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the house whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc., conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation?
A. Committee on Government Assurances
B. Committee on Subordinate Legislation
C. Rules Committee
D. Business Advisory Committee
Answer B
Solution Committee of Subordinate Legislation examines and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rule, sub-rules and by laws delegated by the parliament or conferred by the constitution to the executive are being properly exercised by it. In both the houses, the committee consists of 15 members. It was constituted in 1953.
37.Regarding Wood’s Dispatch, which of the following statements are true?
1) Grants-in-Aid system was introduced.
2) Establishment of universities was recommended.
3) English as a medium of instruction at all levels of education was recommended.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer A
Solution Wood’s Despatch is called Magnacarta of English Education in India.
Salient Features
● An education department was to be set in every province.
● Universities on the model of the London University be established in big cities, such as Bombay, Calcutta and Madras.
● At least one government school be opened in every district.
● Affiliated private schools should be given grant in aid.
● The Indian natives should be given training in their mother tongue also.
● In accordance with Wood’s despatch, Education Departments were established in every province and universities were opened at Calcutta, Bombay and Madras in 1857 on the model of the London University.
38.Very recently, in which of the following countries have lakhs of people either suffered from severe famine/acute malnutrition or died due to starvation caused by war/ethnic conflicts?
A. Angola and Zambia
B. Morocco and Tunisia
C. Venezuela and Colombia
D. Yemen and South Sudan
Answer D
Solution ● Yemen is now on the brink of “the world’s largest famine”, according to the United Nations. The breakdown of government services, lack of drinking water and a crumbling health sector, besides the miseries of civil war and aerial bombardment, are fast turning Yemen into a failed state.
● One year after South Sudan briefly declared a famine, more than half of the people in the world’s youngest nation face extreme hunger amid civil war. A new report by the United Nations and South Sudan’s government says more than six million people are at threat without aid, up about 40 % from a year ago.
39.The identity platform `Aadhaar’ provides open “Application Programming Interfaces (APIs)”. What does it imply?
1) It can be integrated into any electronic device.
2) Online authentication using iris is possible.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer C
Solution ● Aadhaar provides open Application Programming Interfaces or APIs, which can be integrated easily into any electronic device.
● These APIs enable online authentication using a fingerprint or iris.
40.Consider the following statements:
1) Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the amount that banks have to maintain in the form of their own funds to offset any loss that banks incur if the account-holders fail to repay dues.
2) CAR is decided by each individual bank.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer A
Solution ● Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the ratio of a bank’s capital in relation to its risk-weighted assets and current liabilities.
● CAR formula is decided by BASEL-III Committee on Banking Supervision and implemented by the central bank of individual member-country. In India, RBI decides the CAR to prevent commercial banks from taking excess leverage and becoming insolvent in the process.
41.Consider the following pairs:
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 4 only
Answer C
Solution ● The autonomous community of Catalonia occupies a triangular area in the north-eastern corner of Spain.
● The Republic of Crimea, officially part of Ukraine, lies on a peninsula stretching out from the south of Ukraine between the Black Sea and the Sea of Azov.
● Mindanao, island, the second largest (after Luzon) in the Philippines, in the southern part of the archipelago.
● Oromia is one of the nine ethnically based regional states of Ethiopia.
42.With reference to educational institutes during colonial rule in India, consider the following pairs:
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3
D. 3 only
Answer B
Solution Warren Hastings, himself an intellectual, set up the Calcutta, Madras in 1781 for the study and learning of Persian and Arabic.
In 1791 the efforts of Jonathan Duncan, the British Resident at Benares, bore fruit and a Sanskrit College was opened at Benares.
Lord Richard Colley Wellesley took the first step for training of Civil Servants when he founded the fort William College, in Calcutta in November 1800 where the Civil Servants of the Company were to receive training in the literature, science and languages of India.
43.”Momentum for Change: Climate Neutral Now” is an initiative launched by
A. The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
B. The UNEP Secretariat
C. The UNFCCC Secretariat
D. The World Meteorological Organisation
Answer C
Solution Climate Neutral Now is an initiative launched by the UN Climate Change in 2015, aiming at encouraging and supporting all levels of society to take climate action to achieve a climate neutral world by mid-century, as enshrined in the Paris Agreement adopted the same year.
The initiative, therefore, invites companies, organizations, governments and citizens to work towards climate neutrality by reducing their climate footprint thanks to a simple 3-steps method, whereby they shall:
● Measure their greenhouse gas emissions;
● Reduce them as much as possible; and
● Compensate those which cannot be avoided by using UN certified emission reductions (CERs).
44.Consider the following statements
1) Most of the world’s coral reefs are in tropical waters.
2) More than one-third of the world’s coral reefs are located in the territories of Australia, Indonesia and Philippines.
3) Coral reefs host far more number of animal phyla than those hosted by tropical rainforests.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 1and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer D
Solution ● The vast majority of large reefs created by corals in shallow waters (< 50 m water depth) are located within a tropical zone located between 30 º N and 30 º S latitude with a preferred temperature range of approximately 22 º to 29 º C. Coral reefs are often called the “tropical rainforests of the sea” for their astounding richness of life.
● Coral reefs are the most diverse communities on the planet. These tropical marine communities occupy less than 1% of the ocean floor, but are inhabited by at least 25% of all marine species. Scientists estimate that more than 25,000 described species from thirty-two of the world’s thirty-three animal phyla live in reef habitats – four times the number of animal phyla found in tropical rain forests.
45.Why is a plant called Prosopis juliflora often mentioned in news?
A. Its extract is widely used in cosmetics.
B. It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it grows.
C. Its extract is used in the synthesis of pesticides.
D. None of the above
Answer B
Solution The kikar or Prosopis juliflora was brought to Delhi from Mexico by the British more than a century ago. The exotic plant became invasive and wiped out most of the native plants and along with it the animals, which once used to roam in the ridges. With its deep roots, it had also wreaked havoc on city’s groundwater.
46.Consider the following statements:
1) The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory.
2) Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar.
3) The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 only
D. 1 and 3
Answer A
Solution ● Barren Island, a possession of India in the Andaman Sea about 140 km NE of Port Blair in the Andaman Islands, is the only historically active volcano along the N-S-trending volcanic arc extending between Sumatra and Burma (Myanmar). The 354-m-high island is the emergent summit of a volcano that rises from a depth of about 2250 m.
● The Barren Island volcano, on a remote uninhabited island off the country’s eastern coast, had been lying dormant for more than 150 years until it saw a major eruption in 1991. Since then it has shown intermittent activity, including eruptions in 1995, 2005 & 2017.
47.”3D printing” has applications in which of the following?
1) Preparation of confectionery items
2) Manufacture of bionic ears
3) Automotive industry
4) Reconstructive surgeries
5) Data processing technologies
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1, 3 and 4 only
B. 2, 3 and 5 only
C. 1 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer D
Solution ● 3D printing is being used across a range of industries, from construction to medical technology. Its use in the food industry continues to grow.
● 3D printing of confectionery has focused primarily on chocolate and hard sugar candy.
● In America, 3D printed bionic ear was generated via 3D printing of a cell-seeded hydrogel matrix in the anatomic geometry of a human ear.
● Industrial 3D printers have opened new paths at each stage of the production of motor vehicles.
● 3D printing has been used in reconstructive surgery to help repair damaged tissue; for example – in cases of birth defects.
48.The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE), a UN mechanism to assist countries transition towards greener and more inclusive economies, emerged at-
A. The Earth Summit on Sustainable Development 2002, Johannesburg
B. The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro
C. The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change 2015, Paris
D. The World Sustainable Development Summit 2016, New Delhi
Answer B
Solution ● In 2012, Rio+20 (the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development) was held in Brazil. The conference’s outcome document entitled ‘The Future We Want’ was a call to action for governments, business and the UN alike to support countries interested in transition to a green economy.
● PAGE was created as the UN’s direct response to this call of action.
49.With reference to agricultural soils, consider the following statements:
1) A high content of organic matter in soil drastically reduces its water holding capacity.
2) Soil does not play any role in the sulphur cycle.
3) Irrigation over a period of time can contribute to the salinization of some agricultural lands.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer B
Solution ● Soil texture and organic matter are the key components that determine soil water holding capacity. Each 1 percent increase in soil organic matter helps soil hold 20,000 gallons more water per acre.
● Sulphur is one of three nutrients that are cycled between the soil, plant matter and the atmosphere.
● Salinization is a major problem associated with irrigation because deposits of salts build up in the soil and can reach levels that are harmful to crops
50.Which of the following is/are the possible consequence/s of heavy sand mining in riverbeds?
1) Decreased salinity in the river
2) Pollution of groundwater
3) Lowering of the water-table
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer B
Solution ● The removal of sand from the river bed increases the velocity of the flowing water, with the distorted flow-regime eventually eroding the river banks.
● Sand acts like a sponge, which helps in recharging the water table; its progressive depletion in the river is accompanied by declining water tables in the nearby areas.
● Depletion of sand in the stream bed causes the deepening of rivers and estuaries, and the enlargement of river mouths and coastal inlets. It leads to saline-water intrusion.
● Sand acts as an efficient filter for various pollutants and thus maintains the quality of water in rivers and other aquatic ecosystems.
51.Which among the following events happened earliest?
A. Swami Dayanand established Arya Samaj
B. Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan
C. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote Anandmath
D. Satyendranath Tagore became the first Indian to succeed in the Indian Civil Services Examination.
Answer B
Solution ● Swami Dayanand established Arya Samaj – 1875
● Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan – 1858-59
● Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote Anandmath – 1882
● Satyendranath Tagore became the first Indian to succeed in the Indian Civil Services Examination – 1863.
52.In 1920, which of the following changed its name to “Swarajya Sabha”?
A. All India Home Rule League
B. Hindu Mahasabha
C. South Indian Liberal Federation
D. The Servants of India Society
Answer A
Solution Gandhi had become the president of the All India Home Rule League in 1920. Its name was changed to ‘Swaraj Sabha’.
53.With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements:
1) It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
2) It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy.
3) It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer C
Solution ● Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE).
● The objective of this Skill Certification Scheme is to enable a large number of Indian youth to take up industry-relevant skill training that will help them in securing a better livelihood.
● Individuals with prior learning experience or skills will also be assessed and certified under Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL)
54.Which one of the following is an artificial lake?
A. Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)
B. Kolleru (Andhra Pradesh)
C. Nainital (Uttarakhand)
D. Renuka (Himachal Pradesh)
Answer A
Solution ● Kodaikanal Lake, also known as Kodai Lake, is a manmade lake located in the Kodaikanal city in Dindigul district in Tamil Nadu, India. Kodaikanal Lake is in the Palni Hills.
55.Which of the following led to the introduction of English Education in India?
1) Charter Act of 1813
2) General Committee of Public Instruction, 1823
3) Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer D
Solution Charter Act of 1813 permitted Christian missionaries to propagate English and preach their religion. It was also a landmark as it was 1st official move on education in India by British where a dedicated grant for education was provided.
In 1823, the Governor-General-in Council appointed a “General Committee of Public Instruction”, with Lord Macaulay as the president. The committee decided to spend major portions from the grant for the improvement of oriental literature.
The committee was not able to decide the medium of instruction by vote leading to Anglicist and Classicists controversy.
56.The term “sixth mass extinction/sixth extinction” is often mentioned in the news in the context of the discussion of:
A. Widespread monoculture practices in agriculture and large-scale commercial farming with indiscriminate use of chemicals in many parts of the world that may result in the loss of good native ecosystems.
B. Fears of a possible collision of a meteorite with the Earth in the near future in the manner it happened 65 million years ago that caused the mass extinction of many species including those of dinosaurs.
C. Large-scale cultivation of genetically modified crops in many parts of the world and promoting their cultivation in other parts of the world which may cause the disappearance of good native crop plants and the loss of food biodiversity.
D. Mankind’s over-exploitation/misuse of natural resources, fragmentation/loss of natural habitats, destruction of ecosystems, pollution and global climate change.
Answer D
Solution Scientists have warned that the sixth mass extinction of life on Earth is unfolding more quickly than feared. Wildlife is dying out due to habitat destruction, overhunting, toxic pollution, invasion by alien species and climate change. The ultimate cause of all of these factors is human overpopulation and continued population growth, and overconsumption.
57.With reference to the circumstances in Indian agriculture, the concept of “Conservation Agriculture” assumes significance. Which of the following fall under the Conservation Agriculture?
1) Avoiding the monoculture practices
2) Adopting minimum tillage
3) Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops
4) Using crop residues to cover soil surface
5) Adopting spatial and temporal crop sequencing/crop rotations
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1, 3 and 4
B. 2, 3, 4 and 5
C. 2, 4 and 5
D. 1, 2, 3 and 5
Answer C
Solution Conservation agriculture (CA) can be defined by a statement given by the Food and Agricultural Organization of the United Nations as “a concept for resource-saving agricultural crop production that strives to achieve acceptable profits together with high and sustained production levels while concurrently conserving the environment”
The 3 principles of CA are:
● Minimum tillage and soil disturbance
● Permanent soil cover with crop residues and live mulches
● Crop rotation and intercropping
58.The terms ‘Wanna Cry, Petya and Eternal Blue’ sometimes mentioned in the news recently are related to
A. Exo-planets
B. Crypto-currency
C. Cyber attacks
D. Minisatellites
Answer C
Solution The WannaCry ransomware was a worldwide cyberattack by the WannaCry ransomware which targeted computers running the Microsoft Windows operating system by encrypting data and demanding ransom payments in Bitcoin cryptocurrency.
59.Consider the following statements:
1) The Earth’s magnetic field has reversed every few hundred thousand years.
2) When the Earth was created more than 4000 million years ago, there was 54% oxygen and no carbon dioxide.
3) When living organisms originated, they modified the early atmosphere of the Earth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer C
Solution ● A change in the Earth’s magnetic field resulting in the magnetic north being aligned with the geographic south, and the magnetic south being aligned with the geographic north is called as geomagnetic reversal. Complete magnetic reversals have happened every 200,000 to 300,000 years.
● The earliest atmosphere contained carbon dioxide, methane, water vapour, carbon monoxide, little nitrogen and hydrogen.
60.Consider the following statements:
1) The Reserve Bank of India manages and services Government of India Securities but not any State Government Securities.
2) Treasury bills are issued by the Government of India and there are no treasury bills issued by the State Governments.
3) Treasury bills offer are issued at a discount from the par value.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer C
Solution ● A Government Security (G-Sec) is a tradable instrument issued by the Central Government or the State Governments.
● G-Secs are issued through auctions conducted by RBI. As per the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, the RBI may, by agreement with any State Government undertake the management of the public debt of that State.
● In India, the Central Government issues both, treasury bills and bonds or dated securities while the State Governments issue only bonds or dated securities, which are called the State Development Loans (SDLs).
● Treasury bills are zero-coupon securities and pay no interest. They are issued at a discount and redeemed at the face value at maturity.
61.In which of the following areas, can GPS technology be used?
1) Mobile phone operations
2) Banking operations
3) Controlling the power grids
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer D
Solution ● Core functions of GPS technology are Navigation, Timing, Tracking, Mapping and Location.
● Cell towers use it to route your phone calls, ATMs and cash registers use it for your transactions, electrical grids use it to send power to your house.
62.Consider the following pairs:
1) Puthukkuli shawls — Tamil Nadu
2) Sujni embroidery — Maharashtra
3) Uppada Jamdani saris — Karnataka
Craft Heritage of which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2
C. 3 only
D. 2 and 3
Answer A
Solution ● Toda tribe of Tamil Nadu do intricate Pithukuli work on cream coloured shawls.
● Sujani (also known as Sujini) is a form of embroidery originating from the Bhusura village of Bihar.
● Uppada jamdani sarees are diaphanous silk saree that trace its origin to Uppada in Andhra Pradesh. Jamdani itself is a hand woven fabric that is also known as muslin.
63.If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then
A. the Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved.
B. the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.
C. Article 19 is suspended in that State.
D. the President can make laws relating to that State.
Answer B
Solution If the President, on receipt of report from the Governor of the State or otherwise, is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution, the President may, by Proclamation,
A. Assume to himself all or any of the functions of the Government of the State and all or any of the powers vested in or exercisable by the Governor or anybody or authority in the State other than the Legislature of the State
B. Declare that the powers of the Legislature of the State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of Parliament
64.Economically, one of the results of the British rule in India in the 19th century was the
A. increase in the export of Indian handicrafts
B. growth in the number of Indian owned factories
C. commercialization of Indian agriculture
D. rapid increase in the urban population
Answer C
Solution Economic Impact of British rule
● Deindustrialisation – Ruin of artisans and handicraftsmen with cheap and machine made goods imports flooded the Indian market, whereas Indian products found it more and more difficult to penetrate the European markets.
● Decline of many cities and a process of ruralisation of India – Many artisans, faced with diminishing returns and repressive policies of the Company abandoned their professions and moved to villages and took to agriculture.
● The sole aim of the British company was to make India a global farmland. Thus, there was ab emergence of the commercialisation of agriculture. Commercial crops like cotton, jute, groundnut, oil seeds, sugarcane, tobacco, etc., were more remunerative than food grains.
65.After the Santhal Uprising subsided, what was/were the measure/measures taken by the colonial government?
1) The territories called `Santhal Paraganas’ were created.
2) It became illegal for a Santhal to transfer land to a non-Santhal.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer C
Solution ● Santhal Parganas were created in 1885 after partition of Bhagalpur and Birbhum.
● Important reason behind the creation of Santhal Parganas was Santhal Mutiny in 1854-55.
● It became illegal for a Santhal to transfer land to a non-Santhal.
66.Despite being a high saving economy, capital formation may not result in significant increase in output due to
A. weak administrative machinery
B. illiteracy
C. high population density
D. high capital-output ratio
Answer D
Solution ● Capital-output ratio (COR) basically indicates the amount of capital required to produce one unit of output.
● If COR is high, despite saving high and generating enough capital, our output may not grow significantly because the COR is high. This may be a result of poor technology or poor management.
● It is also represented by the famous economic model called Harod-Domar Model.
67.Consider the following statements:
Human capital formation as a concept is better explained in terms of a process, which enables-
1) individuals of a country to accumulate more capital
2) increasing the knowledge, skill levels and capacities of the people of the country
3) accumulation of tangible wealth
4) accumulation of intangible wealth
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 3 and 4
Answer C
Solution ● Human capital formation as a concept is better explained in terms of a process, which enables increasing the knowledge, skill levels and capacities of the people of the country.
● Examples of tangible wealth are materials that are visible and easily quantifiable.
● On the other hand, things that are intangible are immaterial, unseen, and not easily quantified. So, it is also related to human capital formation.
68.Increase in absolute and per capita real GNP do not connote a higher level of economic development, if:
A. Industrial output fails to keep pace with agricultural output.
B. Agricultural output fails to keep pace with industrial output.
C. Poverty and unemployment increase.
D. Imports grow faster than exports.
Answer C
Solution ● Increase in absolute and per capita real GNP do not connote a higher level of economic development, if poverty and unemployment increase.
● Per-capita real GNP does include the adjustment for inflation but it does not account for the inequality present among the population.
● Economic development is the process by which a nation improves the economic, political, and social well-being of its people.
69.If a commodity is provided free to the public by the Government, then
A. the opportunity cost is zero.
B. the opportunity cost is ignored.
C. the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the tax-paying public.
D. the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the Government.
Answer C
Solution ● Opportunity cost is the cost of choosing one alternative over another and missing the benefit offered by the forgone opportunity, investing or otherwise.
● Opportunity cost refers to a benefit that a person could have received, but gave up, to take another course of action.
70.Which one of the following statements correctly describes the meaning of legal tender money?
A. The money which is tendered in courts of law to defray the fee of legal cases
B. The money which a creditor is under compulsion to accept in settlement of his claims
C. The bank money in the form of cheques, drafts, bills of exchange, etc.
D. The metallic money in circulation in a country
Answer B
Solution Legal Tender Money
● The money which a creditor is under compulsion to accept in settlement of his claims.
● Legal tender is legal status given to an instrument like currency note that it can be used as medium of payment.
71.Which one of the following links all the ATMs in India?
A. Indian banks’ Association
B. National Securities Depository Limited
C. National Payments Corporation of India
D. Reserve Bank of India
Answer C
Solution ● National Payments Corporation of India links all the ATMs in India.
● National Payments Corporation of India is the umbrella organisation for all retail payment systems in India which aims to allow all Indian citizens to have unrestricted access to e-payment services.
● Founded in 2008, NPCI is a not-for-profit organisation registered under section 8 of the Companies Act 2013.
● The organisation is owned by a consortium of major banks and has been promoted by the country’s central bank, the Reserve Bank of India.
● Its recent work of developing Unified Payments Interface aims to move India to a cashless society with only digital transactions.
72.”Rule of Law Index” is released by which of the following?
A. Amnesty International
B. International Court of Justice
C. The Office of UN Commissioner for Human Rights
D. World Justice Project
Answer D
Solution ● “Rule of Law Index” is released by World Justice Project.
● The World Justice Project (WJP) is an American independent, multidisciplinary organization with the stated mission of “working to advance the rule of law around the world”.
73.Which of the following has/have shrunk immensely/dried up in the recent past due to human activities?
1) Aral Sea
2) Black Sea
3) Lake Baikal
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3
C. 2 only
D. I and 3
Answer A
Solution ● The Aral Sea is an endorheic lake (one with no outflow) lying between Kazakhstan (in the north and Uzbekistan in the south.
● Lake Baikal is a rift lake in Russia, located in southern Siberia, between Irkutsk Oblast to the northwest and the Buryat Republic to the southeast.
● The Black Sea is a body of water and marginal sea of the Atlantic Ocean between Eastern Europe, the Caucasus, and Western Asia.
74.Consider the following statements:
1) Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile.
2) Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer D
Solution Both statements are wrong.
● Aadhaar card cannot be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile.
● Aadhaar number can be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority.
75.He wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji and Shrikrishna; stayed in America for some time; and was also elected to the Central Assembly. He was
A. Aurobindo Ghosh
B. Bipin Chandra Pal
C. Lala Lajpat Rai
D. Motilal Nehru
Answer C
Solution Lala Lajpat Rai
● He was Born in 1865 in Moga district, Punjab to a middle-class family.
● He was a lawyer by profession.
● Also called ‘Punjab Kesari’.
● He was influenced by Swami Dayananda Saraswati and joined the Arya Samaj in Lahore.
● He founded the Home Rule League of America in 1917 in New York.
● In the USA, he worked to get moral support for the Indian independence movement from the international community.
● He wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji and Shrikrishna.
● He joined Swaraj party in 1926 and was elected as its deputy leader in the central legislative assembly.
76.Consider the following statements
1) The quantity of imported edible oils is more than the domestic production of edible oils in the last five years.
2) The Government does not impose any customs duty on all the imported edible oils a special case.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct-?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer A
Solution ● The quantity of the imported oil is almost 60% of total oil consumption in India.
● Government imposes custom duty on several edible oil, such as palm oil.
77.Consider the following statements:
1) The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report has recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Governments.
2) The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to that of 49% of GDP of the State Governments.
3) As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for a State to take the Central Government’s consent for raising any loan if the former owes any outstanding liabilities to the latter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer C
Solution ● The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Committee headed by N.K. Singh submitted its report in January 2017.
● The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report has recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Governments.
● Since Panel recommended Government to reduce the debt to GDP, so, definitely Central Government’s present domestic liability couldn’t be 21% otherwise it’d negate statement 1. Also, the Domestic liability figures (Economic Survey 2017-18) is in the range of 54% to 47% of GDP each year from 2008 to 2017 for the Union Government. So, statement 2 is incorrect.
● As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for a State to take the Central Government’s consent for raising any loan if the former owes any outstanding liabilities to the latter (A-293).
78.With reference to India’s decision to levy an equalization tax of 6% on online advertisement services offered by non- resident entities, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1) It is introduced as a part of the Income Tax Act.
2) Non-resident entities that offer advertisement services in India can claim a tax credit in their home country under the “Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements”.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer D
Solution ● The levy was introduced in the Budget as part of the finance bill and not as a part of the Income Tax Act. This levy would fall under a separate, self-contained code and would not be part of the Income Tax Act, 1961.
● The government has found a way to indirectly tax companies such as Google and Facebook, a development which could set the stage for taxation of cross-border digital transactions and potentially drive up costs for advertisers. Instead of a straight tax on digital advertising platforms, the government has come up with what it calls an “equalisation levy” of 6% on the fees that advertisers pay.
● The term income tax is defined in double tax avoidance agreements to be mean ‘Indian income tax’. As the levy is not in the nature of income tax, and this levy is currently imposed under domestic tax laws and hence no credit is available under tax avoidance treaties, says Deloitte consultancy paper.
79.What is/are the consequence/consequences of a country becoming the member of the ‘Nuclear Suppliers Group’?
1) It will have access to the latest and most efficient nuclear technologies.
2) It automatically becomes a member of “The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)”.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer A
Solution Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG)
● It is a group of 48 nuclear supplier countries that seek to prevent nuclear proliferation by controlling the export of materials, equipment and technology that can be used to manufacture nuclear weapons.
● The NSG was founded in response to the Indian nuclear test in May 1974 and first met in November 1975.
NPT (Non-Proliferation Treaty)
● The NPT is an international treaty whose objective is to prevent the spread of nuclear weapons and weapons technology, to foster the peaceful uses of nuclear energy, and to further the goal of disarmament.
● Opened for signature in 1968, the treaty entered into force in 1970.
● Four UN member states have never accepted the NPT, these are India, Israel, Pakistan and South Sudan.
● Currently, there are 190 members after North Korea acceded in 1985.
80.Which one of the following best describes the term “Merchant Discount Rate” sometimes seen in news?
A. The incentive given by a bank to a merchant for accepting payments through debit cards pertaining to that bank.
B. The amount paid back by banks to their customers when they use debit cards for financial transactions for purchasing goods or services.
C. The charge to a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from his customers through the bank’s debit cards.
D. The incentive given by the Government, to merchants for promoting digital payments by their customers through Point of Sale (PoS) machines and debit cards.
Answer C
Solution Merchant Discount Rate
- Merchant Discount Rate (alternatively referred to as the Transaction Discount Rate or TDR) is the sum total of all the charges and taxes that a digital payment entails. It is expressed in percentage of the transaction amount.
- The amount that the merchant pays for every transaction gets distributed among three stakeholders- the bank that enables the transaction, the vendor that installs the point of sale (PoS) machine and the card network provider, such as Visa, MasterCard, RuPay.
- Since 1st January 2020, businesses with an annual turnover of more than ₹50 crores are offering low-cost digital payment options to customers and Merchant Discount Rate (MDR) are not being levied on either customers or merchants.
81.Consider the following statements:
1) The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
2) The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer A
Solution ● The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
● The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule can be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it (Supreme Court on 11 January 2007 ruled that all laws including those in the Ninth Schedule would be open to Judicial Review if they violated the basic structure of the constitution).
82.How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)?
1) The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by an executive order of the Government.
2) The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells and aims to improve the quality of air in the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct-?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer B
Solution Both are statutory organisation.
● The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) was constituted in September, 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.
● NGT was established under National Green Tribunal Act, 2010.
● The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts.
● CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells and aims to improve the quality of air in the country.
83.As per the NSSO 70th Round “Situation Assessment Survey of Agricultural Households”, consider the following statements-
1) Rajasthan has the highest percentage share of agricultural households among its rural households.
2) Out of the total agricultural households in the country, a little over 60 percent belong to OBCs.
3) In Kerala, a little over 60 percent of agricultural households reported to have received maximum income from sources other than agricultural activities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 2 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer C
Solution NSSO 70th Round “Situation Assessment Survey of Agricultural Households”
● Rajasthan has highest agricultural households (78.4 %) among rural households, in terms of proportion, in absolute numbers it is Uttar Pradesh.
● The share of OBC households among rural households is about 45 percent.
● In Kerala, about 61 percent agricultural families have more income from agricultural sources.
84.Which of the following leaf modifications occur(s) in the desert areas to inhibit water loss?
1) Hard and waxy leaves
2) Tiny leaves
3) Thorns instead of leaves
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 2 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer D
Solution ● The vegetation of hot desert climate is xerophytic type which has special characteristics to withstand very high rate of evaporation.
● They have long roots, thick barks, hard and waxy leaves, thorns and little leaves.
85.Consider the following statements:
1) In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.
2) In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the Opposition” was recognised for the first time in 1969.
3) In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognised as the Leader of the Opposition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer B
Solution ● In 1952 elections, Congress had won 364 out of 489 Lok Sabha seats in the first-ever general election held in India.
● The CPI was the second party with just 16 seats.
● The Swatantra Party was an Indian liberal-conservative political party that existed from 1959 to 1974.
● Leader of opposition was recognised for the first time in 1969.
● To become the leader of the opposition, a political party needs at least 10% strength of the house (convention);
For Lok Sabha 543 55 (10%).
86.Which one of the following statements does not apply to the system of Subsidiary Alliance introduced by Lord Wellesley?
A. To maintain a large standing army at other’s expense
B. To keep India safe from Napoleonic danger
C. To secure a fixed income for the Company
D. To establish British paramountcy over the Indian States
Answer C
Solution Subsidiary Alliance System
● The Subsidiary Alliance System was “Non-Intervention Policy” used by Lord Wellesley who was the Governor-General (1798-1805) to establish British Empire in India.
● According to this system, every ruler in India had to accept to pay a subsidy to the British for the maintenance of British army.
● In return, British would protect them from their enemies which gave British enormous expansion.
● Those native princes or rulers who would enter into Subsidiary Alliance would not be free to declare war against any other power, nor enter into negotiations with, any power, native or otherwise without the consent of the English.
● The princes who were comparatively strong and powerful would be permitted to retain their armies, but their armies must be placed under British generals.
87.With reference to Indian history, who among the following is a future Buddha, yet to come to save the world?
A. Avalokiteshvara
B. Lokesvara
C. Maitreya
D. Padmapani
Answer C
Solution ● The term ‘bodhisattva’ literally means ‘one who has enlightenment as his/her essence’, from bodhi (awakening or enlightenment) and sattva (essence).
● It is not simply another term for a Buddha, though: a bodhisattva is a being who is destined for enlightenment rather than one who has gained it already.
Maitreya
● He will be the successor of Gautama Buddha and also known as future Buddha, yet to come to save the world.
● He holds a “water phial” in his left hand.
● It is said that he will arrive when oceans will decrease in size (that is why keeps a Kumbha or philial in his hand) and will rule the Ketumati Pure Land (Varanasi).
88.Which one of the following foreign travellers elaborately discussed about diamonds and diamond mines of India?
A. Francois Bernier
B. Jean-Baptiste Tavernier
C. Jean de Thevenot
D. Abbe Barthelemy Carre
Answer B
Solution ● Jean-Baptiste Tavernier- A French traveller and merchant elaborately discussed about diamonds and diamond mines of India.
89.With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following statements:
1) White marble was used in making Buland Darwaza and Khankah at Fatehpur Sikri.
2) Red sandstone and marble were used in making Ilara Imambara and Rumi Darwaza at Lucknow. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer D
Solution Buland Darwaza
● Buland Darwaza at Fatehpur Sikri was built by the great Mughal emperor, Akbar in 1601.
● Akbar built the Buland Darwaza to commemorate his victory over Gujarat.
● It is made of red and buff sandstone and decorated by carving and inlaying of white and black marble.
Rumi Darwaza
● It was built by the third Nawab of Lucknow, Nawab Asaf-ud-Daula and is believed to be identical to an old gate in Istanbul called Bab-iHumayun, and so is also sometimes referred to as Turkish Gate.
● The material used for the Darwaza is bricks and it’s then coated with lime, while the Mughals often used red sandstone.
90.With reference to the religious practices in India, the “Sthanakvasi” sect belongs to
A. Buddhism
B. Jainism
C. Vaishnavism
D. Shaivism
Answer B
Solution ● Sthanakvasi is a sect of Svetambara Jainism founded by a merchant named Lavaji in 1653 AD.
● It believes that idol worship is not essential in the path of soul purification and attainment of Nirvana/Moksha.
91.Who among the following were the founders of the “Hind Mazdoor Sabha” established in 1948?
A. B. Krishna Pillai, E.M.S. Namboodiripad and K.C . George
B. Jayaprakash Narayan, Deen Day al Upadhyay and M.N. Roy
C. C .P. Ramaswamy Iyer, K. Kamaraj and Veeresalingam Pantulu
D. Ashok Mehta, T.S. Ramanujam and G.G. Mehta
Answer D
Solution ● The Hindustan Mazdoor Sabha was founded in Howrah in West Bengal on 29 December 1948, by socialists, Forward Bloc followers and independent unionists.
● Its founders included Basawon Singh (Sinha), Ashok Mehta, R.S. Ruikar, Maniben Kara, Shibnath Banerjee, R.A. Khedgikar, T.S. Ramanujam, V.S. Mathur, G.G. Mehta.
92.Which one of the following is a very significant aspect of the Champaran Satyagraha?
A. Active all-India participation of lawyers, students and women in the National Movement
B. Active involvement of Dalit and Tribal communities of India in the National Movement
C. Joining of peasant unrest to India’s National Movement
D. Drastic decrease in the cultivation of plantation crops and commercial crops
Answer C
Solution Champaran Satyagraha, 1917
● When Gandhiji returned from South Africa, he heard about the case in Champaran. He found out that the British forced poor peasants to grow indigo and the peasants had no other choice.
● More than the cultivation of Indigo, what was appalling was the sharing system that was prevalent –Tinkathia System.
(According to the Tinkathia System, farmers were under compulsion to grow Indigo on 3/20th of their land and were allowed to take only one-third of the indigo produced by themselves)
● Raj Kumar Shukla was an indigo cultivator of Champaran (Bihar), who met Gandhiji to make him aware of the plight of the cultivators in Champaran and persuaded him to come there.
● It was during this agitation, that Gandhi was addressed by the people as Bapu (This was given by Subhash Chandra Bose) and Mahatma (It was given by Rabindranath Tagore).
● Very significant aspect of the Champaran Satyagraha was the joining of peasant unrest to India’s National Movement.
93.Which of the following statements about the British colonial economic policies is/are correct?
A. India was a net exporter of raw materials.
B. India was a net importer of finished goods.
C. There was shift from cultivation of food crops to cash crops.
D. All of the above
Answer D
Solution During colonial times, the foreign trade of India was firmly in the control of British. India became an exporter of primary products (raw material) such as raw silk, cotton, wool, sugar, indigo, jute, etc.
India became an importer of finished consumer goods like cotton, silk, and woollen clothes, and capital goods like light machineries are produced in the factories of Britain.
Also, there was shift from cultivation of food crops to cash crops.
94.With reference to solar power production in India, consider the following statements:
1) India is the third largest in the world in the manufacture of silicon wafers used in photovoltaic units.
2) The solar power tariffs are determined by the Solar Energy Corporation of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer D
Solution ● Every solar panel which is made in India is assembled while all the material comes from China, Europe and some other countries. India is yet to develop semiconductor clusters.
● CERC determines solar power tariffs and regulates the tariff of generating companies owned or controlled by the Central Government.
● SECI has a power-trading license, but it does not set solar power tariffs.
95.When the alarm of your smartphone rings in the morning, you wake up and tap it to stop the alarm which causes your geyser to be switched on automatically. The smart minor in your bathroom shows the day’s weather and also indicates the level of water in your overhead tank. After you take some groceries from your refrigerator for making breakfast, it recognises the shortage of stock in it and places an order for the supply of fresh grocery items. When you step out of your house and lock the door, all lights, fans, geysers and AC machines get switched off automatically. On your way to office, your car warns you about traffic congestion ahead and suggests an alternative route, and if you are late for a meeting, it sends a- message to your office accordingly.
In the context of emerging communication technologies, which one of the following term” best applies to the above scenario?
A. Border Gateway Protocol
B. Internet of Things
C. Internet Protocol
D. Virtual Private Network
Answer B
Solution The Internet of Things (IoT) is the network of physical devices, vehicles, home appliances and other items embedded with electronics, software, sensors, actuators, and connectivity which enables these things to connect and exchange data, creating opportunities for more direct integration of the physical world into computer-based systems, resulting in efficiency improvements, economic benefits and reduced human intervention.
96.Which of the following statements best describes “carbon fertilization”?
A. Increased plant growth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
B. Increased temperature of Earth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
C. Increased acidity of oceans as a result of increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
D. Adaptation of all living beings on Earth to the climate change brought about hr the increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
Answer A
Solution Carbon fertilization
The larger amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere that has resulted from rising anthropogenic emissions should help the growth of plants, which use carbon dioxide during photosynthesis. The effect is ought to increase crop yields.
97.Consider the following pairs:
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer B
Solution ● CRISPR- Gene-editing tool that can be used to modify DNA in cells
● Blockchain technology – Digital/ Cryptocurrency
● The Belle II experiment- It is a particle physics experiment designed to study the properties of B mesons (heavy particles containing a bottom quark).
98.With reference to the Genetically Modified mustard (GM mustard) developed in India, consider the following statements:
1) GM mustard has the genes of a soil bacterium that give the plant the property of pest-resistance to a wide variety of pests.
2) GM mustard has the genes that allow the plant cross-pollination and hybridization.
3) GM mustard has been developed jointly by the IARI and Punjab Agricultural University.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer B
Solution DMH-11 is a Genetically Modified (GM) mustard hybrid. It is herbicide tolerant mustard.
DMH -11 contains three genes viz. Bar gene, Barnase and Barstar sourced from soil bacterium. It was created by using “barnase/barstar” technology for genetic modification by adding genes from soil bacterium that makes mustard self-pollinating plant.
Hybrids are normally obtained by crossing 2 genetically diverse plants from the same species.
The 1st-generation offspring resulting from it has higher yields than what either of the parents is individually capable of giving.
But there is no natural hybridization system in mustard, unlike in, say, cotton, maize or tomato.
This is because its owners contain both the female (pistil) and male (stamen) reproductive organs, making the plant naturally self-pollinating.
A team of scientists at Delhi University led by former vice-chancellor Deepak Pental has bred DMH-11 (Dhara Mustard Hybrid)
99.Consider the following phenomena:
1) Light is affected by gravity.
2) The Universe is constantly expanding.
3) Matter warps its surrounding space-time.
Which of the above is/are the prediction/predictions of Albert Einstein’s General Theory of Relativity, often discussed in media?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer D
Solution ● Einstein’s general theory of relativity is based on how we think gravity governs the behaviour of the Universe.
● We know that matter in the Universe warps the surrounding fabric of spacetime, and this warping effect is what we refer to as gravity.
● According to Einstein’s theory, light, just like any other form of matter, is affected by gravity. That is, the light also “falls” in a gravitational field.
● Hubble Space Telescope captured the image of a phenomenon called Einstein Ring. Einstein in his theory of general relativity had suggested that a massive object would warp space and time.
100.With reference to the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider the following statements:
1) IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits.
2) IRNSS covers entire India and about 5500 sq. km beyond its borders.
3) India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2021.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. None
Answer A
Solution ● The Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS) with an operational name of NAVIC (Navigation with Indian Constellation) is an autonomous regional satellite navigation system, that provides accurate real-time positioning and timing services.
● It covers India and a region extending 1,500 km around it, with plans for further extension. The system at-present consist of a constellation of 7 satellites, with two additional satellites on the ground as stand-by.
● Three of the seven satellites in the constellation are located in geostationary orbit (GEO) and four in inclined geosynchronous orbit (GSO).
The constellation is already in orbit and system was expected to be operational from early 2018 after a system check.